PRWRophecy Again: Marco Rubio  

Tuesday, February 21, 2012

Wow.

In my last post, I revealed that the reason the GOP gives Obama a pass on his ineligibility for office is so that they can run Marco Rubio sometime in the future. Two weeks later, at Michelle Malkin's blog, we are already seeing people advocating it:

On February 21st, 2012 at 9:32 am, conservative hispanic said:
Rogue Cheddar:

You want to stick it to the Establishment, vote Santorum. Don’t waste your vote on RP. Which part of “He’s not going to win?” don’t you get?

Santorum/Rubio 2012
Kudos to Rogue Cheddar for standing up:
On February 21st, 2012 at 9:36 am, Rogue Cheddar said:

Hey CH, what part of ‘Natural born citizen’ do you not get? Rubio is ineligible.
You would think that with all the damage that has been done by having an ineligible occupant in the White House, that would be taken as a reminder. Of course, that's far too much to expect these days:
On February 21st, 2012 at 10:53 am, conservative hispanic said:

Rogue Cheddar:

Rubio is ineligible.

One word: PRECEDENT.

Not only that: there’s NO DOUBT Rubio was born in Miami, and I believe his parents were in the process of becoming U.S. citizens when he was born. That’s better than Obowtome’s record. And if it’s good enough for Barry, then it’s good enough for Marco. You guys better knock it off with the eligibility meme. Makes you look like kooks, stupid AND racists (even if you’re not.)
Racists for insisting that the Constitution be followed? Stupid? Kooks? All for insisting that the supreme law of the land be followed? All for recognizing that the very predicament we find us in was caused by people refusing to follow the Constitution? Who is the stupid racist kook? The person who recognizes that allowing the Constitution to be usurped and circumvented has caused virtually every problem that has plagued the people of this country, or the person who points to the one currently at the helm and suggesting that what is good for the goose must also be good for the gander? Isn't that exactly what we hear from the Donks? That it's ok for Obama to spend America into oblivion because Bush had done the same thing?

Precedent does not overrule the law. The United States Constitution cannot be legally violated by a Republican any more than it can a Democrat. Obama having held office illegally is no more a justification for allowing Rubio in than Bush spending out of control being a justification for Obama to do the same.

It is up to the people to make sure the Constitution is followed to the letter. CH is ignoring his constitutional duty as a citizen of the United States by demonizing those of us who do his job for him. Again, what part of natural born citizen do these people not understand?

RWR



Comments (14)

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It is you who does not understand the meaning of Natural Born Citizen. It refers to the place of birth, not to the parents.

“Under the longstanding English common-law principle of jus soli, persons born within the territory of the sovereign (other than children of enemy aliens or foreign diplomats) are citizens from birth. Thus, those persons born within the United States are "natural born citizens" and eligible to be President...."---- Edwin Meese, et al, THE HERITAGE GUIDE TO THE CONSTITUTION (2005) [Edwin Meese was Ronald Reagan’s attorney general, and the Heritage Foundation is a well-known Conservative organization.]

“What is a natural born citizen? Clearly, someone born within the United States or one of its territories is a natural born citizen.” (Senate Judiciary Committee hearing on OCTOBER 5, 2004)--Senator Orrin G. Hatch (R-UT).

Here is an example of how the phrase was used in 1803, shortly after the Constitution was adopted:

"Prior to the adoption of the constitution, the people inhabiting the different states might be divided into two classes: natural born citizens, or those born within the state, and aliens, or such as were born out of it. The first, by their birth-right, became entitled to all the privileges of citizens; the second, were entitled to none, but such as were held out and given by the laws of the respective states prior to their emigration. ...St. George Tucker, BLACKSTONE'S COMMENTARIES: WITH NOTES OF REFERENCE TO THE CONSTITUTION AND LAWS OF THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT OF THE UNITED STATES AND THE COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA. (1803)

As you can see, that refers only to the place of birth. Natural Born Citizens were "those born within the state." And here is how it was used in 1829:

"Therefore every person born within the United States, its territories or districts, whether the parents are citizens or aliens, is a natural born citizen in the sense of the Constitution, and entitled to all the rights and privileges appertaining to that capacity."---William Rawle, A VIEW OF THE CONSTITUTION OF THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA. 2d ed. (1829)
Neither Edwin Meese, nor Orrin Hatch, nor George Tucker, nor William Rawle is any sort of authority on the Constitution. Take the time to read the definition from the Law of Nations, which would have been used by James Madison and George Washington.

Even the words of the Constitution itself point to this definition, as it exempted those who were citizens at the time - all of whom were born here, but whose parents had no opportunity to be citizens at the time of their birth, since they were largely British subjects (ironically just as Obama's father was).

The four times the Supreme Court has ruled on this matter, it has rules in favor of the Law of Nations.

Neither you nor anyone else has provided a compelling rebuttal to my post of two years ago. Do you really mean to tell me that Justice Livingston, who actually fought in the Revolutionary War, holds less credibility than Edwin Meese? Are you serious? I'd wager Livingston personally knew President Madison, during whose administration his ruling was delivered. His father served on the Constitutional Convention and was one of its signers. His ruling served to define the term so that British officers couldn't arrest US Naval officers for treason and punish them as traitors to the crown.

As stated in the Law of Nations, which would have been the definition understood by the Founders, natural-born citizens are those born in the country of parents who are citizens. Livingston, Story, Chase, and Gray, have all concurred.

Makes no difference where a man was born if his parents are not citizens. Rubio and Obama both had foreign parents and are both therefore ineligible. By the way, Juan McLame was born in Panama. Did you vote for him? By your definition, you broke the law if you did.

RWR
Neither the book The Law of Nations nor its author, Vattel, is mentioned in the Federalist Papers, while the common law is mentioned about twenty times. The term Natural Born appears frequently in Blackstone, which was even more of a popular book among the writers of the Constitution than Vattel.

It is a birther myth that the US Supreme Court has ever ruled that the meaning of the term Natural Born requires two citizen parents.

The US Supreme Court has, however, ruled six to two (one not voting) in the Wong Kim Ark case that the meaning of Natural Born comes from THE COMMON LAW ( not from Vattel). And it ruled in the same case, Wong Kim Ark, that EVERY child born in the USA is Natural Born. What is a Natural Born Citizen? A citizen who was natural born.

As for McCain, I did not vote for him, but the reason that many people consider him to have been eligible is that he fulfills the second of the two criteria for being a Natural Born Citizen in this definition:

“Natural born citizen. Persons who are born within the jurisdiction of a national government, i.e. in its territorial limits, or those born of citizens temporarily residing abroad.” — Black’s Law Dictionary, Sixth Edition

Notice the OR.

Turning back to Rubio. Makes no difference whether a man (or woman's) parents were citizens so long as she or he was born in the USA.
Re: "a compelling rebuttal to my post of two years ago. Do you really mean to tell me that Justice Livingston, who actually fought in the Revolutionary War, holds less credibility than Edwin Meese?"

I take it you are referring to the Supreme Court case The Venus (12 U.S. 253 (1814)?

Well, in that ruling the words Natural Born Citizen do not appear.

(Oh, and by the way, you seem to be quoting from another birther site which stated that Livingstone delivered the opinion in The Venus. It was actually Justice Bushrod Washington, the nephew of George Washington.) (http://law.onecle.com/ussc/12/12-us-253.html)

In The Venus ruling the words Natural Born Subject do appear. BUT there is no definition of the term.

Moreover, it uses the terms native born and natural born interchangeably. For example, it says, "The Claimants are natives of that country with which we are at war, who have been naturalized in the United States."

And it also says: "The persons whose national character is now in question are natural born subjects of Great Britain, naturalized in the United States, and who afterwards returned to the country of their nativity."

It never mentions whether the claimants had British parents, only that they were native born in Great Britain. Thus The Venus does not show that the Vattel definition was used. More likely it was the common law definition. In any case, the use of Natural Born is unclear and is not a definition.

However, in the Wong Kim Ark case, the ruling is very clear, that the meaning of Natural Born comes from the common law, and that it includes all persons born in the country. Thus all native born citizens are also Natural Born Citizens.
Neither the book The Law of Nations nor its author, Vattel, is mentioned in the Federalist Papers
It is, however, mentioned in the Constitution itself (albeit in another context - see Article 1, Section 8). It is well known that the Founders both knew and used Vattel in their careers.

However, in the Wong Kim Ark case, the ruling is very clear, that the meaning of Natural Born comes from the common law, and that it includes all persons born in the country. Thus all native born citizens are also Natural Born Citizens.
The Ark case cites the Vattel definition as it appeared in Happersett. Read it.

Thus The Venus does not show that the Vattel definition was used.
Nice broken link,for starters. Try this one. You will see that this opinion was penned by Livingston in concurrence with the Chief Justice. This means that the Chief Justice issued the opinion and Livingston wrote a concurring opinion, which is also entered into the record. In case you didn't notice, Vattel is mentioned no less than six times by name. The law of nations is mentioned five times. In the opinion, Vattel's definition is quoted in Livingston's own translation:

The natives or indigenes are those born in the country of parents who are citizens.

The correct translation of "natives" is "naturals" and by indigenes, Vattel meant natural born citizens. British common law was mentioned in the opinion, but not in any manner that allowed it any authority.

only that they were native born in Great Britain.

No. It says that they were NATURAL born in Great Britain. So says your own quote. As for your quote from Black's Law Dictionary vis a vis McCain, it is impossible that the Founders would have considered it for their purposes. Its first edition was published well over a hundred years after the Constitution.

Whatever definition Livingston chooses to apply is what applies in any of his opinions. You have the right to disagree with him, but his quoting Vattel's definition in the document pretty much takes away your option of disagreeing with me when I say he applied it.

RWR
Re: " It is, however, mentioned in the Constitution itself (albeit in another context - see Article 1, Section 8). It is well known that the Founders both knew and used Vattel in their careers. "

NO, the BOOK The Law of Nations is not mentioned in the Constitution. The concept of international law, the law of nations, is mentioned in the section dealing with piracy. Perhaps you are confused by the capitalization of the words Law and Nations. That was not because it was a book. It was because they capitalized a lot of things in those days for emphasis. For example: "We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility..."

Notice the frequent use of capitals? Well, Law and Nations are just two more.

IF the book THE Law of Nations was referred to in the US Constitution, the word THE would have been capitalized (and it isn't) and the fact that a single book was referred to in the Constitution would have been explained. The writers of the US Constitution would not have inserted a single book into the US Constitution without telling us about it.

YES, the writers of the Constitution DID use Vattel frequently, mainly as an expert on INTERNATIONAL LAW. But the issue we are discussing is whether they used his definition of Natural Born and not that of the common law. To think that they would do that without telling the world about it is simply silly.

There is NO definition of Natural Born Citizen in the Minor vs Happerset case. NONE.

John Woodman put it rather well when he said:

"“There is no doubt that someone who has A PLUS B can be a member of this club.”

IS NOT a statement that

“Nobody who only has A can be a member of this club.”
Continuing:

Get it? The Minor Vs Happersett ruling was on voting rights. It was not a citizenship decision, and in passing it mentioned the fact that MINOR, the plaintiff, had been born in the USA and had US parents. And it said that because of those facts it could not ever have been doubted that she was a Natural Born US Citizen. But it did not say that she was natural born because of her parents or because of her place of birth or both.

In contrast, the Wong Kim Ark case spends a lot of time on the common law, and concludes that in England, and in the American colonies, and in the early states, AND UNDER THE US CONSTITUTION every, repeat EVERY child born in the country (except for the children of foreign diplomats) is Natural Born.

It does not say that Wong was natural born. Why not? Because it is unnecessary. Remember syllogisms? If ALL men are mortal and George is a man, then George is mortal. Well, if every, repeat EVERY child born in the USA is natural born except for the children of foreign diplomats, and Wong was born in the USA and his parents were not foreign diplomats, then he is natural born.

The fact is that Edwin Meese is right, the meaning of Natural Born Citizen comes from the common law. The writers of the US Constitution were mainly lawyers. They used legal terms the way that they had been familiar with in the common law. IF they had intended to use Natural Born differently from in the common law, they would have told us.

“At the time of independence, and at the time of the framing of the Constitution, the term “natural born” with respect to citizenship was in use for many years in the American colonies, and then in the states, from British common law and legal usage. Under the common law principle of jus soli (law of the soil), persons born on English soil, even of two alien parents, were “natural born” subjects and, as noted by the Supreme Court, this “same rule” was applicable in the American colonies and “in the United States afterwards, and continued to prevail under the Constitution ...” with respect to citizens. In textual constitutional analysis, it is understood that terms used but not defined in the document must, as explained by the Supreme Court, “be read in light of British common law” since the Constitution is “framed in the language of the English common law.”--- Qualifications for President and the “Natural Born” Citizenship Eligibility Requirement, Jack Maskell, Congressional Research Service, November 2011.

“And if, at common law, all human beings born within the ligeance of the King, and under the King’s obedience, were natural-born subjects, and not aliens, I do not perceive why this doctrine does not apply to these United States, in all cases in which there is no express constitutional or statute declaration to the contrary. . . . Subject and citizen are, in a degree, convertible terms as applied to natives, and though the term citizen seems to be appropriate to republican freemen, yet we are, equally with the inhabitants of all other countries, subjects, for we are equally bound by allegiance and subjection to the government and law of the land.” James Kent, COMMENTARIES ON AMERICAN LAW, pg. 258 (1826)

“Under the longstanding English common-law principle of jus soli, persons born within the territory of the sovereign (other than children of enemy aliens or foreign diplomats) are citizens from birth. Thus, those persons born within the United States are "natural born citizens" and eligible to be President...."---- Edwin Meese, et al, THE HERITAGE GUIDE TO THE CONSTITUTION (2005) [Edwin Meese was Ronald Reagan’s attorney general, and the Heritage Foundation is a well-known Conservative organization.]

In The Venus ruling, the plaintiffs are described both as native born in Britain and natural born in Britain. Most likely this meant that they were both born in the country and their parents were British. BUT, the ruling is not clear about it. it certainly does not say that you have to have both been born in Britain and have British parents to be Natural Born. IF it had said that, that would be clear, but it did NOT.
There is NO definition of Natural Born Citizen in the Minor vs Happerset case. NONE.

Wrong. From Minor v. Happersett:

At common law, with the nomenclature of which the framers of the Constitution were familiar, it was never doubted that all children born in a country of parents who were its citizens became themselves, upon their birth, citizens also. These were natives or natural-born citizens

The book by Vattel is a commentary on the law of nations, and happens to mention what exactly that means. This is about Natural Law, which people have no control over. It does not change with the person speaking or writing. Also don't forget that British common law defined a natural born subject as anyone born to a British father. This was, I believe, still in effect in 1961 when Obama was born to his British father. Interesting that the very nationality the Founders sought to keep out of the White House was the first to successfully dodge the law.

A citizen at birth is not a natural born citizen per se. Birth in a country only makes one native born, not natural born. That is the difference.

You have merely re-hashed the same tired arguments. The Heritage Foundation is not a conservative organization. It is a REPUBLICAN organization, which means that it is conservative when being so is to the Republicans' advantage. Kinda like redefining natural born works in their favor when they have an ineligible native waiting in the wings. You haven't shown any reasonable justification for going against the Founders' definition of natural born citizen. No less than four Supreme Court opinions have supported Vattel, and the Founders' understanding would have been Vattel. They deliberately avoided British common law in as many cases as possible. To say otherwise is not to have read Livingston's opinion. Almost all of the Founders were born here. Had that been good enough, they would not have seen a need to include a grandfather clause so that Mr. Washington could serve as President. Their opinion is the only one that matters, since it is still their philosophy that, by law, is supposed to be in place.

RWR
3 replies · active 683 weeks ago
You said:

"Wrong. From Minor v. Happersett:

At common law, with the nomenclature of which the framers of the Constitution were familiar, it was never doubted that all children born in a country of parents who were its citizens became themselves, upon their birth, citizens also. These were natives or natural-born citizens..."

Yes, that is what it said. But, read closely. Does the statement "it was never doubted that those with X and Y could be members of the club" actually mean that you have to have both X and Y?

The ruling does not actually say, does it, that "You have to have both X and Y." Well, if it doesn't say " You have to have X and Y," why consider that it means it? And actually, under strict construction principles, you are not allowed to read into the phrase something that it does not say, and it DOES NOT say that both are required.

And, also, it does NOT mean that both are required. You left out the important part of the quotation. The part where it said that some authorities held that even having one of them is sufficient, but that for the purposes of this case it does not have to decide. When a court says that it does not have to decide, it is not making a decision. The key sentence was that it did not have to decide, and hence it is not considered a decision on the matter.

The final reason that Minor vs Happersett is not a precedent is that it is DICTA. It is a statement about citizenship in a voting rights case. The issue that the court focused on was voting, not citizenship, and for that reason subsequent courts do not consider its statements outside of the area of voting rights to be precedents.

Three reasons:

1: The statement "it was never doubted that children born in the country. etc.." does NOT say that both are required.

2. There is a sentence in the ruling saying that it does not have to decide the matter.

3. The ruling is dicta outside the area of voting rights.

And a fourth, IF Minor vs Happersett were a ruling (and as we have seen, it isn't) a subsequent ruling could overturn it, and there was a subsequent ruling, the Wong Kim Ark case, and it ruled six to two (one not voting) that every child born in the USA is Natural Born except for the children of foreign diplomats. When a person is both a US citizen and natural born (not naturalized) she or he is, wait for it, a Natural Born Citizen.
Continuing:

Re Vattel. There are about a dozen natural law philosophers and they all say different things. IF you read Vattel, and you should, you will discover that he does not support your position at all. His book NEVER recommends that the leaders of a country should even be citizens, much less two citizen parent citizens. After he uses the word indigines to describe someone born in the country of two citizen parents, he never uses it again. He never recommends that the sovereigns or heads of the army of a country be indignies.. In fact, he gives several cases of countries picking their leaders from the nobility of other countries, and HE NEVER SAYS THAT THAT IS A BAD THING.

One thing that he does recommend, however, is that every country should have a state religion, and force people to join it, or allow them to leave the country. Obviously the writers of the US Constitution did not follow this. So they clearly did not follow everything that Vattel recommended. Of course, if they had actually said "Natural Born as defined by Vattel" or "two citizen parents" that would be different, but they did not.

Common law does not require a British father. That was subsequent changes to statutory law, and even it in Britain applied only if the child was born outside of the country. But the common law did not require the father to be British (or the mother either):

This is what Blackstone said:

“The children of aliens, born here in England, are, generally speaking, natural-born subjects and entitled to all the privileges of such. In which the constitution of France differs from ours; for there, by their jus albinatus, if a child be born of foreign parents, it is alien.” http://www.lonang.com/exlibris/blackstone/

(And the minor exceptions referred to in “generally speaking” refers to the children of foreign diplomats.)

Re: "lmost all of the Founders were born here. Had that been good enough, they would not have seen a need to include a grandfather clause"

Precisely, most were born here, but some were not. One who was not was ALEXANDER HAMILTON, (who was born on the island of Nevis) and the grandfather clause was enacted to allow him, and some others who had become naturalized citizens to become president.

Thomas Jefferson and and Andrew Jackson (who had TWO foreign parents) were both natural born citizens due to their place of birth. Alexander Hamilton was not. Why not? Because he was not born in one of the 13 colonies.

Ah, I can hear you thinking, "but the USA did not exist prior to the Declaration of Independence." Do you think that when Ireland got its independence from Britain the people who had been born in Ireland before Ireland became a nation considered themselves British? That is why Tucker wrote this in 1803:

"Prior to the adoption of the constitution, the people inhabiting the different states might be divided into two classes: natural born citizens, or those born within the state, and aliens, or such as were born out of it. The first, by their birth-right, became entitled to all the privileges of citizens; the second, were entitled to none, but such as were held out and given by the laws of the respective states prior to their emigration. ...St. George Tucker, BLACKSTONE'S COMMENTARIES: WITH NOTES OF REFERENCE TO THE CONSTITUTION AND LAWS OF THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT OF THE UNITED STATES AND THE COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA. (1803)

As you can see, at the time (shortly after the Constitution went into effect) leaders considered that US Natural Born Citizens already existed BEFORE the Constitution, and, the definition of Natural Born refers only to the place of birth, not the parents.

And this in 1829:

"Therefore every person born within the United States, its territories or districts, whether the parents are citizens or aliens, is a natural born citizen in the sense of the Constitution, and entitled to all the rights and privileges appertaining to that capacity."---William Rawle, A VIEW OF THE CONSTITUTION OF THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA. 2d ed. (1829)
Vattel was the one the Founders followed. Regardless of what else he said, the Founders included in the Constitution that the POTUS be a natural born citizen.

Blackstone and Rawle are both post-Constitution. I pointed this out to you before, but you ignored it, as you have just about everything else I have put forth for you.

This definition was included in all four cases cited. To suggest that since nothing else was said about it must somehow mean that something else was meant is about as weak an argument as you can make. It would be like me quoting the definition of "is" and then saying that it actually means something different. A bit too Clintonian for an American.

This is what people do when they have lost at debate. They put forth foolishness and call it fact, then demonize the victor.

You would go on believing these people were natural born citizens even if I somehow went back in time and brought both Madison and Vattel back so that they could tell you themselves. It is pointless to present you with the truth because you just won't hear it no matter what.

And so, it appears that you and I will have to agree to disagree. You go ahead and get your fill from the Republicrat trough while you can. Freedom-loving patriots are coming to restore the vision of the Founding Fathers.

And not a moment too soon.

RWR
The real answer here is that it doesn't matter. Barack Obama won the election fair and square, even if he was born in Kenya with both parents Kenyan citizens, which of course he wasn't. The constitution is only a guide. If it had any force of law, there would be no Senate bills; there would be no judicial activism; there would be no President Obama. Roe vs. Wade would never have happened, and neither would Kelo vs. New London. Everyone would be armed to the teeth and gun ownership and violent crime would be out of control.

What matters is that the people elected President Obama and those who were either elected or appointed by the courts (as in the Case of George W. Bush). They in turn chose judges. The people elected their representatives in both houses of Congress. Whatever the Constitution says about any of it is irrelevant. I'm sure not going to be told what to do by a bunch of old dead slave owners.
Re: "Vattel was the one the Founders followed. Regardless of what else he said, the Founders included in the Constitution that the POTUS be a natural born citizen.

There is absolutely no proof if it. And there would be, if it were true. Do you think that the writers of the Constitution would follow a Swiss philosopher instead of the common law when everyone in America was using Natural Born the way that it was in the common law without saying "we are following Vattel" or "Natural Born Citizen means two citizen parents and not the place of birth the way that it does in the common law."

The claims of "four Supreme Court" decisions are equally laughable. No one believes that. Edwin Meese, who was Ronald Reagan's Attorney general, certainly did not.

“Under the longstanding English common-law principle of jus soli, persons born within the territory of the sovereign (other than children of enemy aliens or foreign diplomats) are citizens from birth. Thus, those persons born within the United States are "natural born citizens" and eligible to be President...."---- Edwin Meese, et al, THE HERITAGE GUIDE TO THE CONSTITUTION (2005) [Edwin Meese was Ronald Reagan’s attorney general, and the Heritage Foundation is a well-known Conservative organization.]

Blackstone's Commentaries were published before the US Constitution was written. "copies influenced John Marshall, James Wilson, John Jay, John Adams, James Kent and Abraham Lincoln, and the Commentaries are cited in Supreme Court decisions between 10 and 12 times a year." (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Blackstone)

Rawle wrote after the US Constitution, summarizing its conclusions. His views are similar to Blackstone's, Meese's and the US Supreme Court in Wong Kim Ark--which ruled that every child born in the USA except for the children of foreign diplomats--is a natural born citizen.

That is what this court ruled too:
http://ohforgoodnesssake.com/?p=21346

And this one:

“Based on the language of Article II, Section 1, Clause 4 and the guidance provided by Wong Kim Ark, we conclude that persons born within the borders of the United States are “natural born Citizens” for Article II, Section 1 purposes, regardless of the citizenship of their parents. Just as a person “born within the British dominions [was] a natural born-born subject” at the time of the framing of the U.S. Constitution, so too were those “born in the allegiance of the United States [ ] natural-born citizens.”--- Ankeny v. Governor of the State of Indiana, 916 NE2d 678, 688 (2009), (Ind.Supreme Court, Apr. 5, 2010)

And this one:

Mustata v. US Dept. of Justice, 179 F.3d 1017 (6th Cir. 1999) (children born in US to two Romanian citizens described as “natural born citizens” of the US):

“Petitioners Marian and Lenuta Mustata are citizens of Romania. At the time of their petition, they resided in Michigan with their two minor children, who are natural born citizens of the United States.”

And this one:

Diaz-Salazar v. INS, 700 F.2d 1156 (7th Cir. 1983) (child born in US to Mexican citizen is “natural born citizen” of US):

“Petitioner, Sebastian Diaz-Salazar, entered the United States illegally [from Mexico] in 1974 and has been living and working in Chicago since that time. *** The relevant facts which have been placed before the INS, BIA, and this court can be summarized as follows: The petitioner has a wife and two children under the age of three in Chicago; the children are natural-born citizens of the United States.”

And this quotation from 1803 shows that in America the term Natural Born Citizen was being used the way that it was in the common law, not the way that it was in Vattel:

"Prior to the adoption of the constitution, the people inhabiting the different states might be divided into two classes: natural born citizens, or those born within the state, and aliens, or such as were born out of it. The first, by their birth-right, became entitled to all the privileges of citizens; the second, were entitled to none, but such as were held out and given by the laws of the respective states prior to their emigration. ...St. George Tucker, BLACKSTONE'S COMMENTARIES: WITH NOTES OF REFERENCE TO THE CONSTITUTION AND LAWS OF THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT OF THE UNITED STATES AND THE COMMONWEALTH OF VIRGINIA. (1803)

As you can see, that refers to the place of birth, not to the parents of the citizen. Natural Born Citizens were "those born within a state."
Ellen,

Nothing you have presented proves any better than what I have that the Founders intended for the Vattel definition to apply. Vattel's definition was UNDERSTOOD by them, with no idea that a bunch of whackjobs in the 20th Century would come around and try to redefine it so that their son of a British national could serve as POTUS. Natural born citizens, by definition, by birth, have no allegiance to or claim of citizenship from another nation, as do Mr. Obama (Kenya/UK) and Mr. Rubio (Cuba). British law even at the time of Mr. Obama's birth decrees him a British subject with NO allegiance to the US at all, regardless of his place of birth. THIS IS PRECISELY WHAT THE FOUNDING FATHERS WERE TRYING TO STOP FROM HAPPENING.

I also cannot figure out why you continually throw out quotes from post-Constitutional documents (patently irrlevant) trying to explain what the Founders' reasoning would have been. It makes no sense whatsoever. It's getting to a point where I will have to ban your comments. You really need to address the issue or go away.

In other words, you have not offered any better proof against my point than I have for it. In fact, you haven't even bothered to attempt to get at the issue I have asked you and others to address - how exactly would the Founders have defined the term, which had an understood meaning at the time (much like the term "marriage" used to), and how it would be different from what I say it would be. You can't do that by quoting Edwin Meese; he's little more than a modern criminal with an opinion, and you can't do it with British Common Law, either; the Founders went out of their way to avoid it. Natural born citizens are those born within a country whose parents are both citizens.

'Nuff said.

RWR

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